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A320: General System Quiz
DC BAT BUS can be supplied by:
A
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, or BATTERIES
B
DC BUS 1 or BATTERIES
C
Only DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2
D
DC BUS 2 or BATTERIES
1052
The FAC computes rudder travel limit:
A
At any time
B
Only when AP is engaged
C
Only at low speed
1019
If the BLUE electric pump malfunctions and the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is selected off:
A
The PTU pressurizes the blue system
B
The blue system shuts down (unpressurized)
C
The RAT deploys automatically and powers the blue system
1078
Which of the following function is carried out by the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS?
A
Simulation of artificial feel for the side sticks
B
Conversion of rudder pedal inputs into Electrical Control Signals for the rudder
C
Maintaining a safe flight envelope
1066
All of the following are required to start the APU except:
A
APU MASTER and START switches ON
B
EXT PWR pb selected to ON
C
BAT pbs selected to AUTO
1093
In the normal configuration, what bus powers the AC ESS BUS?
A
AC ESS SHED BUS
B
AC BUS 2
C
AC BUS 1
1041
During an automatic start in-flight, FADEC provides all of the following except:
A
N1 and N2 limits protection
B
Abort authority
C
Abnormal start indications
1128
Which of the following is true concerning FADEC?
A
Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic starts
B
Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during all automatic and manual engine starts
C
Protects the engine from exceeding EGT limits during automatic starts on the ground only
1095
The FMGC functions are:
A
Flight management and flight guidance
B
Flight envelope protection and yaw axis control
C
Flight guidance and flight envelope protection
D
Flight management and flight envelope protection
1022
During an automatic start of engine 1, the crew notices only igniter B is powered. Is this normal?
A
Yes. FADEC only uses igniter B to start engine 1
B
No. Contact maintenance and advise igniter A is inoperative
C
Yes, FADEC alternates igniters for automatic engine starts
1131
The wing-anti ice system provide:
A
Anti-icing capability for only the outboard leading edge devices of each wing
B
Anti-icing capability for all leading edge devices of each wing
C
Anti-icing capability for all leading edge and trailing edge devices of each wing
1084
If the ENG MODE selector is moved to the CRANK position:
A
Fuel and ignition are inhibited
B
The engine will motor when the overhead ENG MAN pb is selected ON
C
The engine will begin to motor immediately with fuel and ignition inhibited
1096
The fwd cargo ventilation system includes two isolation valves that:
A
cannot be controlled from the cockpit
B
allow only cabin air to ventilate the cargo compartment if closed
C
close automatically if smoke is detected
1002
What component unrelated to the CVR must be selected ON for a successful CVR test?
A
Cockpit speaker
B
RMP #1
C
Parking brake
1032
How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?
A
The red ring below the release button should not be in view
B
The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed
C
The red ring below the release button should be in view
1149
Which hydraulic system does the landing gear control and interface unit (LGCIU) use to extend and retract the landing gear?
A
Yellow
B
Blue
C
Green
1085
Select the true statement regarding the FMA:
A
Cyan display an active mode armed
B
Green display an active mode and white display an engaged system.
C
White display an armed mode
1026
What happens to the cockpit door with an electrical power failure?
A
None of above
B
It operates normally on HOT BAT bus
C
It automatically locks
D
It automatically unlocks
1147
Which of the following statements regarding the emergency electrical configuration is true?
A
The RAT automatically extends and the emergency generator connects if AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are unpowered in-flight
B
The RAT must be manually extended using the RAT MAN ON pb if AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are unpowered in-flight
C
The emergency generator provides only emergency DC power
1105
The APU may be started up to what altitude?
A
Both A and B are correct
B
The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries
C
The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries
D
The APU can be started at any altitude provided normal aircraft electrical power is available
1146
AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:
A
Emergency Generator
B
AC BUS 1
C
Static Inverter
D
AC BUS 2
1046
After climbing with power set (no (A/THR) you level off but do not reduce power far enough. What happens?
A
High speed protection activates at VMO +4kt. Pitch increases automatically and VMO is maintained.
B
On reaching the selected cruising speed, auto thrust engages and takes over speed control.
C
The over speed warning activates. You must take corrective action.
1070
During takeoff, to leave SRS MODE:
A
You have to select speed on the FCU
B
You have to leave acceleration altitude inserted in the MCDU
C
Both answers are correct
1028
Which of the following statements best describe the use of engine bleed air?
A
The BMCs use HP air to augment IP air when necessary. HP and IP bleed air are used simultaneously during high demand.
B
The BMCs only open the HP valve during ground operations
C
The bleed monitoring computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is insufficient to meet system demand. HP air replaces IP air as the source of bleed air.
1090
The Alpha Lock feature of the Slat and Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) prevents:
A
The retraction of the flaps during a high angle of attack/ low speed situation
B
The retraction of the slats during a high angle of attack/low speed situation
C
The extension of flaps at a speed greater than the maximum extension speed
1063
When the APU fire pb is released out, the:
A
APU generator is deactivated
B
APU generator is energized
C
APU generator is disconnected
1058
During ground operation, the outflow valve is:
A
Positioned according to FMGS demands
B
Fully closed
C
Fully open
1011
In addition to inhibiting the PTU between engine starts; it is also inhibited during what?
A
YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb selected to ON
B
Cargo door operation
C
Engine failure
1117
During refueling, the AUTO FEED FAULT message is displayed on the E/WD because a significant amount of fuel is in the centre tank and the wing tanks are not full. What action is required by the crew?
A
No maintenance action is required since refuelling is in process
B
Call maintenance to fix or defer the malfunction
C
Reset the system with the MODE SEL pb on the overhead FUEL panel
1076
The LOC P/B on the FCU is pressed to arm the LOC mod. This mode is used for:
A
Tracking a VOR beam during an approach.
B
Performing a published localizer approach
1013
The PITCH NORMAL LAW provides
A
Load factor + high angle of attach + high speed + pitch attitude protections
B
Load factor protection + pitch att protection+ low speed stability
C
Load factor + pitch attitude + high speed protections.
1065
After a dual engine generator's failure, EMER ELEC config triggered and emergency gen supplies the ACFT:
A
FMGC 2 only is available
B
Both FMGC's are available
C
FMGC 1 only is available (nav function only)
D
No FMGC is available
1021
The flight guidance function are:
A
Autopilot, flight director, A/THR
B
Autopilot, performance, flight plan
C
Flight management, autopilot, A/THR
D
Autopilot, flight plan, A/THR
1012
When the door arming leaver is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside will:
A
Only arm the slide
B
Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide
C
The power assist will rapidly open the door
D
Disarm the door
1135
in normal law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled back, can the aircraft exceed the maximum "G Load"?
A
No, the load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid excessive "G loads"
B
Yes, the pilot should avoid rapid sidestick commands
C
No. The sidestick commands are deactivated for five seconds above 2.0 Gs
1060
On board the A-320 aircraft, there are _________ identical ADIRUS and ______ GPS receivers
A
3, 1
B
2, 2
C
3, 2
D
3, 3
1141
You are in manual flight. After descent, you level off, but leave the power in IDL. What happens next?
A
The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until the stick shaker activates.
B
The aircraft maintain altitude (and trims) until it stalls.
C
The aircraft maintains altitude until reaching V PROT then goes automatically in to descent.
1072
After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
A
None of the options
B
Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable
C
It is done automatically
D
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3
1152
Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?
A
20 minutes
B
25 minutes
C
15 minutes
D
30 minutes
1145
What does the "TOO STEEP PATH AHEAD" amber message on MCDU mean?
A
The descent may become too steep and the speed may reach MMO or VMO
B
Moving the sidestick or extending the flaps
C
The A/C is approaching a descent segment between two constraints waypoints that are impossible to fly with the planned descent speed and half speed brake extended.
D
Moving the thrust leavers or using the speed brakes
1023
All flight controls are:
A
Electronically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
B
Electrically controlled with mechanical back up control and hydraulically actuated
C
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated with mechanical reversion capability
1073
The red disk on the outside of the fuselage adjacent to the APU compartment indicates:
A
The APU fire bottle has discharged due to over pressure
B
The APU fire bottle has not been discharged due to over pressure
C
The APU fire bottle requires servicing.
1108
With reference to the cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?
A
There is one fire bottle that discharges into both cargo compartments
B
There is one fire bottle that can be discharged into one compartment only and both DISC lights illuminate when either FWD or AFT pb is pushed
C
There is one fire bottle for each cargo compartment
1056
By accident, you hold the SIDESTICK deflected for too long, and are already at 45 bank. You realise your mistake, and release the SIDESTICK. What happens now?
A
The aircraft maintains 45 bank
B
The aircraft reduces the bank angle to 0 degrees
C
The aircraft reduces the bank angle 33
1068
Which of the following best describes the YELLOW hydraulic system after pushing the ENG 2 FIRE pb?
A
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU operates the YELLOW system.
B
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU transfers GREEN system fluid to operate the YELLOW system
C
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU does not operate the YELLOW system
1116
Which of the following statements is NOT true about rudder control?
A
Mechanical control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power
B
In normal law, the FACs provide turn coordination and yaw dampening without rudder pedal deflection
C
The FACs provide rudder limiting based on airspeed
1112
The pilot is hand flying the aircraft in normal law and initiates a 30 degree bank. Which of the following is true?
A
If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, the aircraft will maintain 30 degrees of bank indefinitely.
B
Beyond 25 degrees of bank, sidestick pressure must be continuously applied to maintain the desired track bank angle
C
If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, positive spiral stability returns the bank angle to 25 degrees
1111
Which hydraulic system does the alternate braking system use?
A
Geen
B
Yellow
C
Blue
1120
during a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
A
It is automatic once the ENG MASTER is placed to the ON position
B
By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is out of the NORM position
C
By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel
1150
In case of TR1 and TR2 failure:
A
AC ESS BUS, AC ESS SHED BUS are lost
B
DC ESS BUS is lost
C
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC BAT BUS are lost
1048
The amber ON BAT light illuminates on the ADIRS panel
A
When the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS.
B
Both other answers are correct
C
Fast alignment is in progress
1142
The active FPLN is erased when
A
The a/c has been on ground for 30 sec following the landing
B
The pilot calls the a/c status page
C
One engine is shutdown at parking place
D
The wheels touch the runway at landing
1018
Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?
A
Only able to deactivate from cabin
B
HORN SHUT OFF
C
OFF switch
D
COMMAND witchs.
1134
What is the airspeed limit for operation of the windscreen wipers?
A
250 knots
B
210 knots
C
230 knots
D
200 knots
1082
In the event of a failed ACP, how can the pilot continue to make ACP selections?
A
No pilot action is required. The failed ACP is automatically replaced with ACP 3
B
The failed ACP can be replaced by ACP 3 using the AUDIO SWITCHING selector
C
The failed ACP must be reset by selecting the ACP OFF then ON
1035
During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the BAT pbs are selected to OFF to conduct a voltage check. What is the minimum voltage for a successful battery check?
A
Greater than 25.5 volts
B
Greater than 26.5 volts
C
Greater than or equal to 25.5 volts
1042
What happens in case of total loss of main generators?
A
The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the EMER GEN
B
The RAT is automatically extended and powers the yellow system which drives the EMER GEN
C
The RAT has to be manually extended and mechanically connected to the EMER GEN
1049
In clean configuration, if approach phase is activated and confirmed on PERF page
A
ILS capture mode is engaged
B
Speed reduces to 250kts
C
Managed speed reduces to Green Dot
1031
What are the different laws in which the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS can operate?
A
Normal law, alternate law, backup law
B
Automatic law, ground law, flight law
C
Normal law, alternate law, direct law
1067
From which tanks will fuel gravity feed?
A
The center tank only
B
Outer cell of the wing tanks, inner cell of the wing tanls, and/or center tank.
C
Outer cell of the wing tanks, and inner cell of the wing tanks
D
Inner cell of the wing tanks, and center tank
1137
If RMP 2 fails:
A
VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
B
Only VHF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
C
The whole system is inoperative
D
All com systems can be controlled by any other RMP
1037
In case of EMER ELEC config, why is the ECAM asking you to press the BUS TIE p/b to "off"
A
To connect both sides of the electrical system
B
To separate both sides of the electrical system.
C
To switch both generators to the opposite side AC BUS
D
To connect both generators directly to the AC ESS BUS
1053
Which of the following criteria is true for inhibiting the PTU between engine starts?
A
On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake on or nosewheel steering disconnected
B
On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake off and nosewheel steering connected
C
On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches and nosewheel steering connected
1080
An emergency call from the cabin results in the flashing of what ACP legend?
A
MECH
B
ATT
C
CALL
D
VHF 1
1104
At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
A
10,000
B
15,000
C
14,000
D
12,500
1144
On ECAM PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes amber if :
A
Fully open in flight
B
Fully closed
C
Fully open in ground
1010
If the outer tank fuel transfer valves open in-flight, they are commanded closed:
A
By pushing the TRANSFER pb
B
Automatically during the refuelling process
C
Automatically in-flight when all outer tank fuel has transferrred
1114
If a GREEN ENG 1 PMIP failure occurs:
A
The PTU transfers BLUE system fluid to operate the GREEN system
B
The PTU automatically pressurises the GREEN system without transferring any fluid
C
The PTU transfers YELLOW system fluid to operate the GREEN system
1115
If an engine fire detection loop fails (ECAM displays ENG 1 FIRE LOOOP A FAULT)
A
Fire detection for that engine is unavailable
B
The other loop can provide fire detection
C
The pilot must select the other loop (loop B)
1107
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the safety valves?
A
They prevent excessive positive or negative differential pressure
B
The prevent excessive negative differential pressure only.
C
They prevent excessive positive differential pressure only.
1102
Can you override the high speed protection by applying full forward sidestick? (normal law?)
A
Yes if both sidesticks are moved full forward
B
No
C
Yes pilot input always has priority
1071
Prior to engine start, the EXT PWR pb indicates AVAIL and the APU START pb indicates AVAIL, what source is powering the aircraft?
A
External power
B
The APU
C
The aircraft electrical systems are not powered.
1045
When the A/P is engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by:
A
The FMGC
B
The SEC
C
The ELAC
D
The FAC
1021
If an IDG pb is pushed in response to an abnormal condition:
A
The IDG can only be reconnected by maintenance
B
The pilot is merely backing up the auto disconnect feature of the IDG
C
The pilot may push it again to reconnect the IDG
1040
If the CAPT and PURS/CAPT switch on the EVAC panel is set to CAPT, the complete Evacuation Alert System is activated by selecting what pushbutton(s) to on?
A
Cockpit COMMAND pb
B
Cabin CMD pb
C
Cockpit COMMAND pb or cabin CMD pb
1033
Which hydraulic system(s) supply pressure to the landing gear system?
A
Yellow and Blue
B
Green
C
Green and Blue
D
Blue
1138
The wings contain what type of bleed leak detection?
A
Single loop
B
Triple lindy
C
Dual loop
1127
If the LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, the active cabin pressure controller receives destination field elevation from what source?
A
FMS
B
ADIRS
C
ACARS
1100
In alternate law:
A
Roll is the same as normal law (roll rate)
B
Turn coordination is automatic
C
Pitch trim is automatic
1062
In the AUTO position, the XBLEED (crossbleed) valve will:
A
Open if a leak is detected
B
Normally be open
C
Open with the APU bleed valve opens
1126
What do you command in the pitch channel when you deflect the SIDESTICK in normal flight?
A
Load Factor
B
Pitch rate
C
Attitude
1069
To switch from speed to Mach on FCU, you need to:
A
Push the HDG-VS / TRK-FPA p/b
B
Push the speed knob
C
Push the speed/mach p/b
1025
What cockpit lighting is available during the emergency electric configuration?
A
F/O's dome light and the standby compass light
B
F/O's dome light, captain's main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light
C
Dome lights only
1043
If the engines and APU are running with the APU bleed valve open the BMCs:
A
Open the engine bleed valves and allow the engine and APU bleed air to pressurise the pneumatic system simultaneously
B
Close the APU bleed valve and opens the engine bleed valves giving priority to engine bleed air
C
Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air
1092
What happens when both pilots move their sidestick in the same direction?
A
Both inputs are added, without limitation
B
Nothing
C
Both in puts are added, up to a maximum deflection
1071
If electrical power supply to the wing anti-ice valve fails, the wing anti-ice valve:
A
Remains in the current position
B
Closes
C
Opens
1083
On the ground with an engine shut down, can the pilot deploy that engines thrust reverser blocker doors and translating sleeve from the cockpit?
A
No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an inoperative engine from the cockpit.
B
Ye, as long as green hydraulic system is pressurised
C
Yes, as long as the yellow hydraulic system is pressurised
1098
On EMER ELEC PWR panel, a fault light illuminates in red under the label. What does it mean?
A
RAT is not extended
B
Emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered
C
Emergency generator is supplying but AC ESS bus is not powered
1050
If electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve fails, the engine anti-ice valve:
A
Opens
B
Remains in its current position
C
Closes
1119
Which position of the INT/RAD switch must be used with care since it creates a "hot mike" for interphone communications?
A
INT
B
RAD
C
Neutral
1034
If an ENG FIRE pb is pushed:
A
Agent 1 discharges automatically and AGENT 2 is armed
B
Agent 2 only is armed
C
Agent 1 and 2 are armed
D
Agent 1 only is armed
1054
If cabin pressure controller 1 fails, what occurs automatically provided no other abnormals are present?
A
The manual mode activates
B
Cabin pressure controller 2 activates
C
The outflow valve drives full open
1099
A fast alignment occurs by selecting the rotary MODE selector from NAV to OFF and back to NAV within how many seconds?
A
Three
B
Ten
C
Five
1123
The crew should expect the red SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel:
A
To extinguish after discharging the fire bottle
B
To flash indicating the source of the smoke is still present after discharging the fire bottle
C
To reamin illuminated even if the source of the smoke is extinguished after discharging the fire bottle
1109
Can you transmit on VHF and the PA at the same time:
A
Never
B
Yes by pressing RAD toggle switch and PA key
C
Yes by using stick PTT command and PA key
1038
When engine fire pb is released out, which valve is affected?
A
LP FUEL SHUT OFF VALVE + HYD + BLEED +PACK + ELEC GEN
B
FUEL VALVE
C
HYDRAULIC FIRE SHUT OFF VALVE
1057
If the blue electric pump malfunctions are the blue elec pump pb is selected off:
A
The PTU pressurises the blue system
B
The blue system shuts down (unpressurised)
C
The RAT deploys automatically and powers the blue system
1079
The safety valves are opperated
A
Pneumatically
B
Hydraulically
C
Electrically
1004
The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?
A
ROSE NAV or ARC
B
All modes except PLAN
C
ROSE NAV or VOR
D
ROSE VOR or ROSE ILS
1140
If engine 1 bleed valve fails in the closed position, engine anti-ice is:
A
Provided through electric heating
B
Unaffected since engine anti-ice is provided by hot bleed supply that is independent of the pneumatic system
C
Unavailable to that engine
1091
If selected ON which exterior lights automatically extinguish with the landing gear retracted?
A
Wing lights
B
Nose lights (taxi and takeoff)
C
Landing lights
1087
Can the aircraft be ever dispatched without meeting MEL criteria?
A
Never.
B
Yes. If after due consideration of the commander, the failed equipment is not required for the operation.
C
Only in case of ferry flights carrying neither passengers nor freight for valuable consideration, for the purpose of returning the aircraft to a place where it can be repaired.
1154
The RAM air switch should be used:
A
Only after outflow valve is fully opened
B
When diff press is greater that 1 psi
C
Only when diff press is less than 1 psi
D
At any time
1006
When does the alternate braking system become operational/active?
A
The failure of the autobrakes
B
The failure of the green hydraulic system
C
The failure of the Alternate Brake Control Unit (ABCU)
1086
Which hydraulic system provides pressure for braking under normal conditions?
A
Yellow
B
Blue
C
Green
1081
Which of the following is true?
A
Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by ambient air
B
Each engine shares oil with its respective IDG
C
Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by fuel
1132
When landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the controller from :
A
FMGC
B
ADIRS
C
FCU
1007
What does a triple click mean on an ILS approach?
A
A level 3 warning to the crew
B
Landing capability downgrading warning
C
Flaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down
1016
Pushing the "reset" p/b on the rudder trim control panel:
A
Resets the rudder trim to the value displayed on the position indicator.
B
Resets the rudder trim to zero degree.
C
Resets the rudder trim to the last position prior to AP activation.
1074
What is the only protection available in alternate law?
A
High Speed
B
Angle of Attack
C
Manoeuvre Protection
1061
A return to the departure airport is required immediately after take-off. Which statement is true regarding automatic pressurisation?
A
The pilot must select the manual mode (MODE SEL pb to MAN)
B
The active pressure controller automatically returns the cabin altitude to the departure field elevation
C
The outflow valve remains in its last position
1101
The external power has priority over the APU gen:
A
Yes
B
No
1047
Cabin pressurization starts at:
A
Take-off thrust application
B
Lift-off
C
2nd engine start
D
Engine start
1008
When pushing the APPR p/b on FCU:
A
Approach phase is activated
B
LOC and GS modes are armed when performing ILS
C
Speed automatically reduces to approach speed
1029
If performing a manual engine start (overhead ENG MAN START pb ON):
A
FADEC only opens and closes the start valve
B
Ignition and fuel flow occur when the respective ENG MASTER switch is selected ON
C
FADEC opens the start valve and provides ignition and fuel flow 30 seconds after the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON
1129
Which of the following is true?
A
FADEC will only prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in reverse thrust
B
FADEC will prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in both forward and reverse thrust
C
FADEC will always prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits and EGT limits
1097
APU bleed air may be used for all of the following except:
A
Pack operation
B
Wing anti-ice
C
Engine starting
1094
In the event of an engine flame-out:
A
Continuous ignition is unavailable
B
Continuous ignition is only activated by selecting the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START
C
FADEC automatically provides continuous ignition on both engines
1130
Engine anti-ice is applied to what component of the engine?
A
The spinner and the nacelle leading edges
B
The nacelle leading edges
C
The fan and nacelle leading edges
1082
From lowest to highest, what is the priority order for normal electrical power?
A
GEN (engine), EXT PWR, APU GEN
B
GEN(engine), APU GEN, EXT PWR
C
EXT PWR, APU GEN, GEN (engine)
1039
In normal law, what is the maximum bank angle obtainable with the sidestick fully deflected?
A
67 degrees
B
33 degrees
C
45 degrees
D
There is no bank limitation in normal law
1110
In cruise, lateral A/P orders are executed by:
A
Ailerons and spoilers
B
Ailerons and rudder
C
Ailerons, rudder, spoilers
D
Rudder and spoilers
1015
The message OUTER TK FUEL XFERED appears in the MEMO. What does this mean?
A
Fuel is transferring from the centre tank to the inner tank
B
It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open
C
It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve
D
Fuel is transferring from the inner tank to the outer tank
1136
The cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy ('drop') when the cabin altitude exceeds:
A
10,000
B
14,000
C
12.500
1089
When do the fuel (F USED) indications on the FUEL page automatically reset to zero?
A
Engine shutdown
B
Engine start
C
After landing
1077
The AP function:
A
Remains available in case of both FM failure
B
Remains available in case of both FG failure
C
Is lost in case of both FM failure
1027
What does illumination of the white SLIDE ARMED light represent on the main cabin door?
A
This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed but the slide is properly armed
B
This indicates that the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use
C
This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed
D
This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft.
1148
The green hydraulic system is inoperative:
A
The slats flaps are normally operating
B
The wing tip breaks are activated and the corresponding surfaces remain at previous position
C
The slats flaps are operating at half speed
1075
At the gate, if the ADIRUs are powered by the aircraft batteries, all of the following occur except?
A
The external horn is activated
B
ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated
C
The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminates
1125
The trim function of the FAC is:
A
An aileron trim
B
A pitch and rudder trim
C
A pitch trim
D
A rudder trim
1014
If flaps FULL is selected with the speedbrakes extended:
A
The speed brakes will automatically retract
B
The flaps will extend and the speedbrakes remain extended. There will be an ECAM warning message
C
The flaps will not extend until the speedbrakes are fully retracted
1113
What are the basic modes of the AP/FD?
A
VS and HDG
B
ALT and NAV
C
SPD and HDG
1017
In NORMAL LAW, the STALL WARNING is activated:
A
AOA corresponding to STALL WARNING cannot be reached in NORMAL LAW
B
When a MAX is reached
C
When PROT is reached
1064
Each aircraft generator (engine and APU) can supply up to 90 KVA while the emergency generator supplies how much power?
A
15 KVA
B
45 KVA
C
5KVA
1044
The zone temperature selectors on the AIR COND panel perform what function?
A
Signal temperature demands to the AC controllers
B
Modulate the trim air valves
C
Modulate the pack bypass valves
1103
Setting the ATHR levers at idle will disconnect the ATHR mod. ATHR will reactivate:
A
Provided the levers are set in CLB gate A/THR p/b is pressed
B
As soon as thrust leavers position is changed when A/THR p/b is pressed
C
Provided the levers are removed from idle position
1020
Which is NOT a basic mode of GPWS?
A
Excessive terrain closure rate
B
Altitude loss after takeoff, or go-around
C
Excessive rate of descent
D
Deviation above the glideslope
1143
ADIRU #2 normally supplies ADR and IR information for which displays?
A
Captain's PFD and ND
B
Captain's PFD and first officer's ND
C
First officer's PFD and ND
1124
How is an APU fire on the ground normally extinguished?
A
From external power panel
B
Automatically
C
From APU fire panel
1059
When illuminated, the overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs are powered by either the bus or what other power source?
A
AC BUS 1
B
BAT BUS
C
Internal batteries
1122
To display localizer and glideslope indications on the PFD, you need:
A
Press the LOC pushbutton on the FCU
B
Press the LS p/b on the EFIS control panel
C
Press the APPR p/b on the FCU
1024
In cold aircraft configuration (no ac and no dc supply), where can the batteries voltage be checked?
A
There is no indication
B
On the ELEC overhead panel
C
On the ECAM ELEC page
1051
What does the APPR push button do?
A
Arms the flight guidance system to capture a localiser and glide slope.
B
Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed
C
Arms managed navigation
D
Arms managed vertical navigation
1139
When the 'ditching' switch is selected ON a closure signal is sent to:
A
The outflow valve and the pack flow control valves
B
All answers are correct
C
The ram air inlet and ventilation inlet and extract valves
1005
The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of:
A
Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase
B
Pack overheat, engine fire push button released, engine start, ditching p/b/pressed
C
A and B
1009
The crew performs a landing with autobrakes selected to MED. What triggers the application of the autobrakes?
A
Reverse thrust is selected
B
The signal to extend the spoilers
C
The application of the brake pedals by the pilot
1121
In manual mode, who or what drives the outflow valve full open during landing?
A
The active Cabin Pressure Controller
B
The pilot using the ditching switch
C
The pilot using the MAN V/A CTL switch
1001
The emergency lights can be activated from the flight attendant station:
A
Regardless of which position the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel
B
Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the OFF position
C
Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the ARM position
1088
During descent in OPEN DES mode, pilot selects an altitude higher than aircraft altitude:
A
Vertical mode switches to OP DES
B
Vertical mode switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft)
C
Vertical mode switches to OP CLB
1030
When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurised with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO
A
After selecting the BLUE ELECP PUMP to ON after engine start
B
Automatically, after both engines are started
C
Automatically, after the first engine start
1118
Following pressurisation SYSTEM 1 fault
A
System 2 must be selected by the crew
B
Master caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the crew
C
System 2 takes over automatically without crew action
1003
During the exterior preflight, the pilot observers the illumination of the APU FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nosewheel) and hears the external worning horn followed by the APU emergency shutdown. Outside the cockpit, the pilot must do what to discharge the APU fire bottle?
A
Push the APU SHUT OFF pb on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
B
Push the FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
C
Nothing. On the ground only, the APU shutsdown and automatically discharges the APU fire bottle
1055
Stby NAV has been selected by the use of NAV key
A
VHF is still available but only the last frequency selected can be used
B
VHF function is lost on this RMP
C
Nav key has no effect on radio com frequency selection
1036
If the lower ECAM DU fails is there a way to retrieve that information?
A
Both A and B are correct
B
Both A and B are wrong
C
B. By rotating the ECAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower ECAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or FO's ND
D
A. By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
1151
During descent, the cabin pressure rate is controlled in a way that.
A
The aircraft is fully depressurized prior to landing
B
The cabin descends at 1000ft per minute
C
The cabin is slightly pressurised at landing
1153
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PPL (A) EXAM PRACTICE
010 Air Law Aeroplane
020 Aircraft General Knowledge
030 Flight Performance and Planning
040 Human Performance
050 Meteorology
060 Navigation
070 Operational Procedures
081 Principles of Flight
090 Communications
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1:1 Ground School Instruction
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